Jhorra wrote:
darksiege wrote:
Rorinthas wrote:
Additionally the equality of everyone in Christ is mentioned multiple places in the NT.
That does not stop people from using Leviticus as a condemnation of the gay people though.
Gay is a choice. If you believe in the bible.
The Bible doesn't say anything about being gay. In the old testament it specifically condemns sex between males (arguably, only anal sex between males), and nothing else. Nothing about women
at all.
In the new Testament there are passages in Paul's epistles where,
in some translations, he mentions 'homosexuals' alongside several other sorts of people as not likely to inherit the Kingdom of God. The problem with these passages is that they don't necessarily translate specifically as 'homosexual'. In point of fact, the Greek words in question are of highly disputable translation:
Homosexuality in the New TestamentQuote:
In the New Testament (NT) there are at least three passages that may refer to homosexual activity: Romans 1:26–27, 1 Corinthians 6:9–10, and 1 Timothy 1:9–10. A fourth passage, Jude 1:7, is often interpreted as referring to homosexuality. None of the four gospels mentions the subject, and there is nothing about homosexuality in the Book of Acts, in Hebrews, in Revelation, or in the letters attributed to James, Peter, and John.
The presumed references to 'homosexuality' in the NT hinge on the interpretation of three specific Greek words, arsenokoitēs (ἀρσενοκοίτης), malakos (μαλακός), and porneia.[1][2] For example, according to the English Standard Version (ESV), the words translated by the phrase "men who practice homosexuality" (in 1 Corinthians 6:9–10), refer to the "passive and active partners in consensual homosexual acts".[3] While it is not disputed that the two Greek words concern sexual relations between men (and possibly between women) some academics interpret the relevant passages as a prohibition against pederasty or prostitution rather than homosexuality per se, but other scholars have presented counter arguments.[4][5][6] The historical context has also been a subject of debate.
The article goes on to discuss the various whys and wherefores of the issue. Suffice to say that the issue is not nearly as black and white as 'Bible-believing' American fundamentalists would have it. We simply
do not know exactly what Paul was referring to. This is a perfect example of why anyone who claims to believe exactly what the Bible says, without interpretation at all, is fooling themselves. It is simply not possible to do that. We're 2000+ years from the events, and English is a very different language from those used to write the original manuscripts.
As for what Jesus put forth, he had little to say on sex at all. When people attempt to put forth that the Bible describes "one man and one woman" as God's plan for marriage, it's true, but it's also begging the question. The Bible does that because that is all that was accepted as a marriage in the times it describes, and written laws for the Jews didn't come about until Moses. The Bible does not even begin to try to explore the issue of monogamous homosexual relationships, or a married relationship between same-sex people. It leaves that issue to the Church that comes later.
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