Beryllin wrote:
Wow, it sure takes a lot of words for you to admit you can't prove me wrong. You won't, because you can't.
Wrong about what? You still haven't said what it is you think I should try to prove you wrong about.
In any case, when it does come to specific topics, you've failed to prove your points repeatedly. I don't bother to "back my points up with Scripture" because you don't back up your own with it. You quote snippets, and then promptly demonstrate you don't really understand them. I'm not going to provide my own snippets; you clearly wouldn't understand them either.
But that's why you want me to argue that way. You want it to be you, and only you, who gets to interpret Scripture. This crap about "don't use the wisdom of the world" is really just you saying "don't point out my ignorance about the Scripture I quote, just find some other piece and let me decide whether it proves me wrong or not."
Case in point: homosexuality. You have not shown any condemnation of homosexuality in the Bible. The OT
only specifically addresses male homosexuality, and a literal reading appears
only to address anal sex. Your only response to this is "well I don't care about what Scripture doesn't say" but without a condemnation of female homosexuality, you cannot call it a sin, and therefore you cannot call homosexuality in general a sin. If it were the mere fact of two people being of the same sex, the OT law would not limit the prohibition to males.
You have gone so far as to accuse God of being unjust if the purpose is simply to prevent rape, despite the fact that A) by that standard God is equally unjust if it is
not to prevent rape because the law says the same thing and both partners would still be stoned B) the fact that you apparently have no problem of "just" or "not just" over the idea of stoning people to death for a consensual sex act in the first place and C) the fact that the verses imply voluntary action; a person being raped is not "laying down with another" they are being
forced to do so. Therefore, a person who is a victim of rape is not culpable, but since the law prohibits any sex between men, rapists cannot use the defense of consensuality; all that might do is drag the victim down with them. It is therefore a strong deterrent to rape because there is no defense for the rapist.
Moving on to the NT, PAul makes unfavorable comments about homosexuality (depending on the translation) at some points, but he cannot be condemning homosexuality in general as some major sin without contradicting himself and Christ:
Matthew 15:11[url]http://www.biblestudytools.com/1-corinthians/10-23-compare.html]1 Cor 10:23[/url]
All tihngs are lawful but not all things are profitable - something being unprofitable does not make it a sin.
Finally, the dispute at Antioch was specifically over the need to observe Jewish law. Specifically it was over dietary law, but the remainder of the Jewish law is no different - only the Ten Commandments enjoy any special status and they do not address the issue of homosexuality.
Ephesians wrote:
"We who are Jews by birth and not sinful Gentiles know that a person is not justified by observing the law, but by faith in Jesus Christ."
Even if we take the Jewish position that Paul still wanted Christians to observe the Seven Laws of Noah, that still only prohibits male homosexuality (Lesbianism is permitted under them) and the Seven Laws of Noah are not part of Christian tradition except insofar as they are reflected either in the Ten Commandments or int he remainder of OT law; they enjoy no status of their own.
This is not without good reason either; they were supposedly given to Adam in the Garden of Eden, but a prohibition on male homosexuality makes little sense for a man with a woman and a bunch of animals in a garden. Neither does the requirement for a just governing body or the prohibition against theft apply to Adam.
Even if we refer to the Apostolic Decree of Acs 15:20, that only refers to "Sexual immorality" or "fornication". One might argue that homosexual behavior is immoral, but that simply begs the question: In the absence of a clear prohibition on homosexuality in general (since there is none on that of females) there is no reason to think it is included. Even if we say that male homosexuality is immoral because it is prohibited by OT law that brings us back around to why? It was perfectly ok to excuse Gentiles from all sorts of other laws but not that one, and one that applied only to half the population? Especially when the reason for ahving it; preventing of male-male rape in the army of Israel had passed; Isreal no longer being an independant nation with its own army.
It is also problematic that although the Council of Jerusalem appears to prohibit eating food offered to idols, in 1 Corinthians Paul refuses to rebuke the Corinthian Christians from doing just that; he does not mention the council's decree.
The bottom line here is that homosexuality cannot be condemned with a blanket label of "sinful". Had God wished it to be so, He could have made it far more clear in both Testaments; instead He allows it to fall into the same category as circumcision and dietary law. Yet it still is the recipient of
special pleading from people who want some sort of "sinner" to set up as the boogeyman about to bring God's wrath down on everyone.
Of course, you've been equally unable to support your assertions that the U.S. is about to receive punishment from God. You rely totally on Israel in the OT, totally disregarding the fact that the entire purpose of Israel's experience in the OT was to lead up to Jesus and show the need for Him, a situation no modern nation shares. Your only argument is that "God doesn't change" which is irrelevant; obviously He doesn't. That does not prevent him from devising a devine plan in which He undertakes different courses of action at different times based on what part of the plan is being advanced. God is not a robot, mindlessly proceeding in one fashion all the time. Your argument would be like claiming that becuase a person quits skydiving, rock-climbing, and deep-sea diving because they have children and no longe want to take risks that they are somehow a different person.
You ahve also appealed to the Revelation discussion of the end of the nations at the Second Coming, but since that is both inevitable and applies to every nation, it is not relevant to showing that the U.S. is going to receive any special punishment. Your argument that the nation will be punished is, in any case, spurious since God always bases his decisions on individuals; the sin of a nation is the aggregate of that of individuals, and God does not punish the righteous along with them. Refer to the Five Righteous Men that could not be found.
I might also point out that there is no one righteous, not even one.
I'm sure that you'll once again claim this is just "the wisdom of the world." Apparently the "wisdom of the world" is "Understanding God's teaching in any way that Bery doesn't approve of, even when his way contradicts Scripture". Bery, all you're really asking for here is a debate where only you get to interpret anything.
But since you apparently wanted so badly to be shown wrong about
something, there you go. I eagerly await the next round of you changing the subject, moving the goalposts, and dire warnings about how any ideas you don't like are an indication that the holder is going to see God's wrath. It's truely instructive to see what Pharisees must have actually been like.