Stathol wrote:
So what, then, should a psychiatrist or therapist do/say to a patient that admits to being a pedophile or zoophile(?) with respect to sexuality, but who is committed to not practicing it? Should the therapist inform the patient that their sexual impulses (not just acting upon them) are wrong/deviant? Should it be treated as a mental illness, and if so why? What is the distinction, psychologically, between these sexual impulses and any other?
There is a reason why treatment for pedophiles simply doesn't work, and the risk of the perpetrator reoffending is so incredibly high. As humans, sexuality is an integral part of who we are, and in fact, one of the primary parts of who we are. Natural selection favors reproduction, and therefore the sexual drive is generally the primary motivator in almost all creatures, and humans are no exception. Of course, humans don't consciously view sex as a primarily reproductive thing -- in general, we're not intending to have children most times we have sex, and certain sexual orientations are highly unlikely or impossible to conceive children, but that doesn't make the sexual motivation any less for those people. What percentage of human beings die of old age having remained a virgin, by choice, their entire lives? Very, very few. While being in a relationship is a choice, the sex drive is such a strong motivator that only one in several thousand willingly chooses to ignore it. Eventually nearly everyone acts on their sexual feelings.
So quite simply, the pedophile is almost guaranteed to offend. Since their "partners" are victims who cannot give consent, lacking an effective treatment, the pedophile really needs to be treated like the rabid dog that they are.
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If the distinction is purely that acting upon those impulses would in all cases be illegal? If so, this is problematic because this is not actually always the case. You might be surprised to learn that bestiality, for instance, isn't necessarily illegal -- at least, not in all U.S. locales. Animal cruelty typically is, but even so, this doesn't necessarily preclude all bestiality. There have been several high profile cases where the only charges that could be brought against someone caught in the act of bestiality were "criminal trespassing", or some other ancillary charge. However distasteful, repugnant, or immoral the acts might have been according to American social norms, it was deemed that -- objectively speaking -- there was nothing per se "cruel" or harmful to the animal. So, that argument doesn't seem quite sufficient, rationally.
I won't debate bestiality. It's bizarre, but I'm not entirely convinced it should be considered criminal. Whatever turns your crank, I just don't want to see or hear about it.
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A stronger argument could be made in the case of pedophilia, based not just on the illegality, but rather on the principle that the practice of pedophilia is always harmful (either psychologically or physically) to its objects. But even that argument isn't entirely clear, at least in the case of ephebophilia. Is a 21-year-old who finds him/herself attracted to 16-or-17-year-olds mentally ill? Acting on those impulses may be illegal in most places, but legal statutes aside, it's difficult to make a rational argument that a 21-year-old having sex with a 16-year-old would be psychologically damaging, but a 16-year-old having sex with a 17-year-old (or a 19-year-old having sex with an 80-year-old *shudder*) wouldn't.
Laws are different everywhere here, too. Until 4 years ago, the age of consent in Canada was 14. We recently raised that to 16, but your 21 year old having sex with a 16 year old is legal here. We have, as countries, arbitrarily picked ages at which we feel people should be considered capable of making these decisions (note that marriage at 13 was commonplace in England a few hundred years ago.) However, in most cases, a teenage girl sexually resembles a young woman, not a child. I'm not sure these instances have anything to do with sexual orientation. I wouldn't necessarily call such a person a pedophile. They committed rape (statutory, though it is,) but they are not necessarily attracted to kids.
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In short, if we're examining "non-standard" sexuality in a vacuum -- just the sexuality itself apart from its practice -- what is the difference between them? That is, all other things being equal, is a non-practicing pedophile morally equivalent to a non-practicing homosexual? Do they have the same psychological status? I.e., is one a mental illness while the other is not?
The difference is, when the homosexual almost inevitably chooses to engage in a sexual relationship, they are partnering with a consenting adult who has also chosen this. The pedophile, when they almost inevitably choose to do the same, are victimizing an innocent child.