Sasandra wrote:
No, actually he didn't give me enough notice, not only did he ultimately provide no legal notice but he didn't give me enough notice to submit a notice myself to move out at the end of Feb too I I had wanted to, the 31st when he told me he was moving was 29 days before he was planning on moving out, a 30 day notice is required to move out, he didn't give that to me or the landlord.
So since it was less than 30 days I couldn't have even given the landlord my notice to leave at the end of Feb and thus i'm forced to stay there to the end of March at that point, so yes, he should be required to pay his half of March because he didn't in fact give proper notice.
That's a retroactive justification, though, Sas. Unless I misunderstood, your original argument for why he should pay was based on the idea that it takes both tenants to effectively cancel, not on the idea that his notice was inadequate. Basically, it sounds like you knew he was leaving and had no intention of doing so yourself, but when you
later discovered that meant you would be on the hook for the whole rent, you started looking for reasons why he should still be required to cover half of it. The first theory you identified (that he can never get out of the lease unless you do too) seems weak, so you're now attacking the sufficiency of his notice instead.
In short, it seems like you made a mistake in your understanding of what your rent obligations would be after he left, so now you're just trying to look back and find some mistake
he might have made so you can get him to cover some of the cost. *shrug* Might be legally correct, but like I said, just seems kinda crappy to me.