Diamondeye wrote:
False. It says Congress can lay taxes; it doesn't place any limits on what those taxes can be used for. There doesn't need to be a specific power for each and every thing that Congress would spend money on. It also isn't limited to spending money on the powers its already granted, and even if it did, purchasing parts of private companies might still fall under regulation of interstate commerce.
If you want Congress to be limited to spending money on things it is empowered to regulate, you need a Constitutional Ammendment. Otherwise, the letter of the law contains no such limitation, and precedent is that they can do so. That doesn't mean it's good that they can or that they should, but they are not violating the Constitution by doing so, 10th ammendment included.
The Tenth Amendment of the Constitution of the United States of America wrote:
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.
Therefore, anything not enumerated to it by The Constitution
is forbidden. Otherwise, the specific enumerations such as:
Quote:
To establish post offices and post roads;
To raise and support armies, but no appropriation of money to that use shall be for a longer term than two years;
To provide and maintain a navy;
Would be redundant and meaningless. The addition of specifically worded amendments, such as The Sixteenth is testament to this interpretation of Constitution.
The only thing I might agree on is "Interstate Commerce":
Quote:
To regulate commerce with foreign nations, and among the several states, and with the Indian tribes
However, there are two reasons why I believe this clause should not be construed to mean as some interpret it to be today: one, Prohibition. If this clause was so all-encompassing, then there would have been no need for the Eigthteenth and subsequently, the Twenty-First. Secondly, this was a bailout that targeted many business, probably all of which dealt with business among states other than the one in which they are headquaurted. But just the same, there never is any language or discussion limiting this "elastic" clause to be limited to only those types of entities; it is oftentimes applied universally without acknowledgement of this explicit exception even though it may rarely, if ever, be applicable. Were it to mean something else, then why say interstate Commerce at all? Why not just give the government the power to regulate all commerce if this clause was intended for that use?
I posit it was not.