Corolinth wrote:
Except that "moral delinquencies of a grave order" was a phrase appearing in a legal document.
The term "legal document" does apply here, but "legal", in our system, is purposefully divided into civil law and criminal law. You can civilly contract to all sorts of provisions and standards that have nothing to do with the standards of criminal law. If for instance your employment contract specifies that you can be fired for inappropriate attire, it's up to the contract to define what that means. Except where civil law provisions themselves specifically demand otherwise, a contract is generally free to define such standards any way that both parties are willing to agree to it.
Corolinth wrote:
When contested, that document is going to be reviewed by a justice of the peace and not a priest.
True, assuming that we're not talking about a private mediation scenario. However, the judge/justice's role is only to decide whether or not the contract has been fulfilled
according to the language of the contract. Injecting a 3rd-party standard -- whether that's a standard of attire or a standard of moral behavior -- is outside of the judge's pervue unless the contract has failed to define what such terms mean.
That may be the case in this situation; I really don't know, since the whole text of the contract isn't available (that I know of). If the contract failed to define any concrete metrics, then the decision is going to be based on some combination of the judge's own knowledge/judgement and expert testimony offered by both sides, depending on whether and to what extent specialized knowledge would be required to reach a reasonable judgement.
In the absence of any specific definition in the contract, I would expect a civil court to follow a similar procedure used to decide questions of morality as are used elsewhere in the law, such as resolving FCC indecency complaints. Typically this revolves around the notion of "community standards", rather than any criminal standards. The question is whether the community would, on the whole, regard his behavior as a serious moral failing or not, rather than whether it is criminally classified as a misdemeanor or felony (or whether it is criminal at all).
Having said that, the outcome of the criminal trial may be indirectly relevant, depending on specific NH law. In some places, criminal standards for things like "lewd conduct" are themselves based on the criteria of community standards. If this is the case, and he was tried locally, then the conviction may be relevant in that it (arguably) sets a precedent for how the community regards the action. I say arguably because this would only hold if both felony and misdemeanor charges were filed simultaneously. The fact that he was only convicted of a misdemeanor rather than a felony would be of little consideration if the DA decided not to press felony charges in the first place.