Stathol wrote:
Except for the part where they totally did create the law in the first place. There were no blasphemy laws on the Indian subcontinent until they were brought there and instituted by the British in the 1860s. As Christian missionaries from Britain began to migrate into India, they began to find it rather inconvient for their citizens to be prosecuted under the laws they had instituted. The laws were rescinded for a time, but reinstated in 1927 after Christianity had become an established, if minority, religion.
Ok, first of all Christianity was well known (if not widespread in practice) in India long before British rule, so no, the Indian Roman catholics totally did
not create it in the first place. The British were pretty anti-Catholic, in fact at the time they ruled India. The Christians of India did not create the law except in some sort of "they're Christians and the British were Christian so somehow it makes it the responsibility of the Indian Christians" guilt-by-association logic.
Second, the reason the British created it was, in fact, the tensions that existed there, and even though the exact nature of those tensions has changed, the fact is that they remained and that is the continuing purpose of this law. Whether or not it is well-advised is another matter. See below. Your own evidence demonstrates this, and the reason is that a small nation like Britain needs whatever methods it can lay its hands on to control a world-spanning empire when it has only so many regiments and ships to spare. The less local infighting there is to quell, the better.
Diamondeye wrote:
You can't uphold the blasphemy laws as being the genuine cultural will of the Indian people while at the same time dismissing their ideas of democracy and civil rights as some kind of faux Western overlay since both ideas were imported by western foreign rule. Regardless, India has been independent for 65 years. They've had ample time to reform their government into whatever shape they please. They've chosen by their own will to maintain an essentially democratic form of government with a variety of civil rights. Those ideas belong to them as much as they belong to westerners, unless of course you believe that the Indian people are stupid to think for themselves.
Ok, what you can't do is take “our ideas about freedom of speech may not be palatable to most Indians” and turn it into “the blasphemy laws are the genuine cultural will of the Indian people.” That isn’t even close to what I said.
Second, you also cannot claim that Freedom of Speech is just as much an Indian idea as a western one after admitting it was introduced by the West, then claim that 65 years means that the Indians have adopted freedom of speech as their own idea because that’s enough time to mold their government, then turn around and take issue with the idea of blasphemy laws as something they want. Freedom of speech is an idea they have adopted, but evidently so are blasphemy laws, since those constitute a major restriction on that freedom.
Third, 65 years is hardly long enough to assume the Indians have come to any universal consensus on what Freedom of Speech means just because they adopted the basic idea. We certainly have not in over 3 times that long. There are over 1 billion Indians and any idea that they have some universal idea on any political matter, or for that matter, a unified “cultural will” is asinine. The fact that the idea is Western in origin and was adopted by them in no way implies stupidity; in fact it implies a greater open-mindedness than many other peoples living in former colonial lands.
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I rather suspect that not getting fined/imprisoned is a vastly more significant factor in his decision to flee India than whether or not he gets sympathy, but I fail to see the relevance even if he is. This remains such an exceedingly insignificant event on the world stage that no country -- if they even care in the first place -- is going to apply diplomatic pressure. At that point, it's just opionions and I doubt India gives any more shits about our opinions than we do about its.
I suspect you’re mostly correct, but playing for western sympathy is exactly how he’s going about avoiding getting arrested. It’s highly unlikely any western country would go to the trouble of extraditing him.
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Either way, you're making a pretty hasty generalization about the west and its tolerance for blasphemy. Again, it was the West who introduced these ideas to India in the first place. As for the modern West, I submit for consideration the numerous blue laws in the U.S., that laws against sodomy weren't ruled illegal until 2003, and -- most directly relevant to this specific case -- the fact that Britain didn't rescind its own blasphemy laws until 2008. If he's looking for sympathy in the West, he's barking up the wrong tree, both historically and contemporarily speaking.
Well if he’s barking up the wrong tree, he’s barking up the wrong tree. In any case, Britain’s blasphemy law saw little enforcement since Indian independence, he probably is unfamiliar with trivial sodomy laws in the U.S., and as far as America specifically goes, we’ve historically been a lot more concerned with preventing **** than we have blasphemy. His impression of the west may or may not be accurate.
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It's reallly nothing of the sort (see below).
Except that it is, as your see below amply demonstrates.
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the atheist is being a hypocrite ***** about the law and then running off to Europe after picking on a minority religious group rather than the groups that are the real reason for the law in the first place.
The "real reason for the law in the first place" has nothing to do with religious violence between Muslims and Hindus or between Muslims and Christians. In fact, when you dig into the history of the law and its corresponding caselaw, it has little to do with religion at all. It was instituted to try to quell tensions between Punjabs, Mughals, and Hill Rajas. The 12 Sikh states that controlled the Punjab region from about the mid 1500s to the mid 1800s found themselves frequently in conflict with both the Muslim Mughal ruling class and with the Hindu Rajas of the Hill States. Though sectarian, the conflict wasn't about religion so much as culture and politics. The Sikhs advocated a casteless, tolerant society. Though the Misls were predominantly Sikh, they also contained Christians.[/quote]
So, in other words, it was to help keep a lid on tensions. Thanks. As you can see I was correct. The differences between the groups may indeed have focused on their ethnicities, but the simple fact is that when ethnic differences are compounded with religious differences, religion is an additional source of tensions and flashpoints for violence. If that were not true, it would serve no purpose whatsoever to make the law in the first place.
Furthermore, the fact that the original reasons for the law revolved around quelling Punjab-Mughals-hill Rajah tensions does not, in any way, indicate that it does not serve the purpose of avoiding Hindu-Muslim tensions now. Major religious violence goes back as far as 800 AD with Timur’s sack of Dehli. In more recent times we have the Sikh revolt and Indira Ghandi’s assassination in 1984, ethinic cleansing against Hindus in Kashmir, and numerous other examples by and against Hindus and Muslims and Christians.
It is hardly reasonable, therefore, to think that this law remains on the books simply because it’s been forgotten, or because it was introduced by the British. So no, I am not off base at all, as your own evidence amply demonstrates.