RangerDave wrote:
A flat consumption tax is called regressive in ordinary usage because it is regressive in reference to income. The lower a person's income, the higher the percentage of their income gets spent and thus is subjected to the consumption tax. So, given an 11% flat consumption tax, a poor person spending 100% of their income pays 11% of their income in taxes, while an upper-middle class person spending 50% of their income pays only 5.5% of their income in taxes.
Once again, you are committing a bare assertion fallacy. There is nothing ordinary about making taxation relative to income in a system without only a flat consumption tax. Indeed, as
Wikipedia notes:
Quote:
A regressive tax is a tax imposed in such a manner that the tax rate decreases as the amount subject to taxation increases.[1][2][3][4][5] In simpler terms, a regressive tax imposes a greater burden (relative to resources) on the poor than on the rich — there is an inverse relationship between the tax rate and the taxpayer's ability to pay as measured by assets, consumption, or income. "Regressive" describes a distribution effect on income or expenditure, referring to the way the rate progresses from high to low, where the average tax rate exceeds the marginal tax rate.
The marker for regression is always the amount taxed, not the source of that taxation. Consequently, current taxation is REGRESSIVE, because payroll taxes are capped, thereby exempting any portion of income over $185,000, as the amount taxed is income. Asset taxes, such as inheritance taxes, are also regressive except existing exemptions that are periodically evaluated or eliminated based on the whims of Congress and the Executive. Consumption taxes are not regressive, because they do not scale with inversely with consumption.
So, again, please explain how a VAT only system with a flat consumption tax is regressive without shifting the marker outside the accepted and standard definition.
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