Rafael wrote:
A great deal of what we do decreases our ability to continue to function. Even eating and drinking does - there are many dietary choices people make which are conducive toward this definition of harm.
No, there really aren't. You can certainly see the cumulative effect over time of many such choices, but no one dietary choice results in this sort of impact. You know this. You're simply trying to stretch the definition of the word "harm" to include this to bolster your argument.
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Except it's not irrelevant, it's only irrelevant because you are making an intentional delineation.
In other words, it is irrelevant.
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If I take my short jib board out West and go down trails I have no business on, that certainly can cause "self-harm". It is much more close to deliberate rather than accidental because of the degree of difficulty compared to my ability to escape without injury. What you are arguing is that there is some bright, exact line whereby incidental injury suddenly becomes intentional self-inflicted harm. You might argue that "self harm" is no the goal in any case. But one could argue that it's a disingenuous argument to make in the cases deeper in the spectrum of activities which involve great risk of danger and degree of difficulty that self-harm isn't part of the goal since it's in unavoidable obstacle and one everyone is aware of.
Except that it's not a disingenuous argument to make because it requires that intent to harm yourself, as opposed to mere foolhardiness, be the reason for your action. It's far more vague. The disingenuousness relies in your attempts to stretch the position to encompass something it doesn't to make it seem weaker.
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I'm not playing any word games. Are you causing self harm anytime you choose to eat a cheeseburger? I just had a really good one last night, jalapenos included. Jalapenos include a chemical irritant known as capsaicin which causes the spicy sensation. I doubt you'd argue eating this is self-harm, yet in great enough quantity, the chemical can cause problems for the digestives system long term. And I eat them just for the "harm" or the "pain" .. i.e. the spice. I'm sure lots of people do the same thing. So at what degree does this activity become conflated with your definition of harm?
Now you're just ignoring my arguments and strawmanning them. The irritation from capsaicin (which I am quite familiar with) is not permenant, nor more than a mild irritation. It is not "harm". I've posted a definition of the word "harm". Your continued use of examples where different (and mysteriously unexplained) definitions are used indicates that yes, you are playing word games. You're trying to switch definitions to make an example.
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It meets the definition of the word "harm". You're the one making the arbitrary claim here. By this argument, if you amputate someone else's limb, it isn't harm either.
Many things meet the definition of harm. No, that's not harmful to you to amputate other limb. That seems simple enough to me. Other than maybe the risk of transmitting an infection to yourself, it's not harmful or accidentally cutting oneself. It certainly could be considered harmful to the amputee in the sense you speak of, but that's disingenuous and a strawman to call that my argument.
You're definitely playing word games, or you're an imbicile. My sentence clearly refers to whether or not it's harm
to the other person to cut off their limb. Calling that strawman is basically admitting thet you're too unintelligent to understand that without me explaining it in so many words, or you're being intentionally dishonest? Which is it?
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My point was you have not established why a particular point becomes harm rather than just ordinary injury. Or that the point even exists: if you want to be technical, every process the body undergoes never completely restores the body to a previous state. So at what degree does the restoration become "effectively the same"? You are just placing that point arbitrarily to make your definition of harm coincide with what you like and what you want to be considered healthy.
You're just ignoring the fact that I've repeatedly cited impairment of normal physicological capability. Severity and length are together considered to determine if its enough.
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Which doesn't make it anything other than your own proclaimation.
Since this statement only tries to refute the introductory clause of my next point, I don't see a reason to address it by itself.
Don't make bare asserions in your introduction then.
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Here's the problem: you certainly consider some things to be harm and others to not. You see that there is a clear delineation, a bride border which seperates the two. There is, certainly for you. There is that border for everyone. Why should this be universal? When I say "establish what is meant by harm", you know exactly what I mean.
Yes, I know exactly what you mean. You are trying to claim that it somehow matters "where it is" for any given person. The border isn't there "for me", it's there for everyone. Pretending it isn't is simply circular argument; it's saying "The point where harm begins is different for each person, making it subjective. We know it's subjective because it's different for each person." Whether it should be universal is a nonsensical question; it
is universal. The concept and definition of harm are not subjective.
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[How is that not relevant? You argued harm is considered trading a tangible asset for a non tangible good in the case where this is some alleged, quantitative net gain. I pointed out why the gain being net is irrelevant. Rich people pay lots of money for mundane things. This isn't harmful, yet by the preceding definition you suggest, it would certainly be considered so.
I didn't argue anything in relation to goods of any kind or description. You continue to pretend that the exchange of goods is in some way similar to bodily injury that cannot be reveresed. You don't get that as a free assumption. Show that the two concepts are identical.
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Certainly, if I just walked in and he was doing so. We can exercise our choice to give our opinion. Why wouldn't I? What about my views makes you think otherwise. The point is when it comes down to brass tacks, it's ultimately his choice since it's his body. If you argue otherwise, then that leads down the slippery slope where we can do all sorts of things such as ban soft drinks, fast food, etc. Just because your arbitrary delineation of where you consider the boundary of harm/non-harm to be does not encompass fast food as harmful, doesn't make your argument for any different than those who argue to ban fast food. It's the same argument.
Begging the question. You are trying to show that it's his choice since its his body. You cannot use the assertion that its his choice since its his body to support that.
It does not lead down a slippery slope because A) the slippery slope starts ignoring the qualifiers that limit it to demonstrable harm, not the harm that results from complex cause fallacy with things like dietary choice and B) because the slippery slope is fallacious in the first place. You have to show that it
necessarily leads to those things, not jsut that they might be logically justified using similar arguments.
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Not true, tattoos can be seen as a stigma, and so they carry with them certain social limitations. That manifestation of the limitation is a product of man and not the physical world is no different. Also, it does inhibit certain physical functions - you cannot grow hair there as well, and your skin may be more susceptible to being damaged by the sun, thus you are removing the protective function against the sun your skin has.
Tattoos
can be seen as a stigma; they may also be seen favorably. As for growing hair, that is not a life function; many people are bald and their ability to perform life activities is not altered in any way mro significant than normal body type differences. The same thing in regards to sun protection.
You're again trying to equate things that
might cause undefined problems to things that definitely do cause readily identifiable problems.
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As for you claiming I'm begging the question, the problem with the construction of your argument is that it assumes that is a problem that "needs to be addressed". Certainly it needs to be addressed by society, but not by law.
You're trying to show that it should not be addressed by law. You just agreed that it is a problem that needs to be addressed. It isn't an assumption at all; it's a fact. You readily recognize this. Therefore you need to address why it shouldn't be dealt with by law. You're making a positive assertion that law should be excluded from dealing with it. You can't show that by just assuming it's the default.
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Any number of things. Ultimately "pleasure and enjoyment" aren't meant to be exhaustive list, but of the most common non-tangible gain made in exchange for corporeal assets.
In other words, "it should be a personal choice in order to be a personal choice".
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It is most relevant. Here is a clear cut case in which people trade a substantial about of tangible assets for intangible gains. I could certainly modify your person definition of where harm-non-harm begins and make the same argument you are with the same strength that spending money on trinkets is harmful and should not be allowed.
Except that you can't because the two concepts do not physically behave the same way. You would be able to do that only by making certain assumptions which are contradicted by observation.
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No you can't. Once wealth is destroyed, it's gone. It takes further resources to restore it. This is the equivalent to functioning within (as opposed to on the boundary) of ones personal productivity possibility frontier.
Ee aren't talking about wealth being destroyed, we're talking about it being
spent. Moreover, while you can earn more money and spend resources to acquire wealth, you cannot regrow a severed limb or restore many types of bodily damage
by any means.
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We deny them loans and credit which are assets granted and owned by mostly private enterprises. That is entirely different and highly disingenuous to even mention in the context we are discussing. A person who is denied credit is not denied it by some law that has some definition of "fiscal irresponsibility" which states it is illegal from them to obtain borrow-ed credit - the credit is denied by the originator. But we do not make it illegal for people with a poor finance history to take out loans. The subprime market is clear evidence of that.
So you admit that the only problem is the involvement of government. Good. Then we can dispense with this silly idea that harm isn't harm except when it is harm (you know, when the government is involved, we need to pretend the definition of harm is totally up to the inidividual and has no clear definition that anyone who's not an imbicile can apply... oh wait, it does have such a definition)
Moreover, as you admit these assets are mostly private, not always, and in any case, fincancial problems can be remedied. Mutilation of the body frequently can be. You know this quite well; you're just drawing false equivalency.
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Opportunity cost is not the same as inflicting intentional damage. You're being disingenuous.
Except it is. Financially speaking, it's the analog.
No, it isn't. This is preposterous, unless you just assume away significant differences.
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It won't. That still doesn't assert your point. You need to prove why the boundary between harm and non-harm is allegedly set somewhere north of self mutilation. Reduced biological capability is not synonymous with harm. It is one metric. There are lots of times we reduce biological capacity intentionally and severely. Amputations were a common way to stop infections from spreading in old medicine.
I've already explained why. It does show my point. You're just pretending I didn't.
Your example is a tacit acknowledgement of this. Yes people sometimes did (and still do) end up amputees for medical reasons. That is because amputation was
less harmful than the alternative, which was death. You are intellgient, enough, are you not, to grasp that
less harmful is not "non-harmful"? You are that intelligent? Good, I'm glad to know you're just being disingenuous, not an idiot.
I certainly hope you weren't arguing that Civil War amputees didn't regard themselves as unharmed when they got an amputation. That would have made you appear really stupid and we can't have that.
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Yea pretty much. Except the "I" in this case is the person making the choice. On the contrary, you've argued this entire time as though everyone should agree with your definition of harm versus non-harm (I probably agree with it personally as do many other people, or at least most of it) or that you somehow know something everyone else doesn't. They have the recourse to try and convince him otherwise. Since they are kin, they probably have more ability to make him see reason. My friend is getting married soon, and he absolutely should not be. The woman he has already cheated on, he doesn't like the kid, he doesn't like her or how she's raising the kid, they fight all the time in front of the kid, he has barely a job (held probably 30 jobs since between now and when we graduated), had his car repo'd 2 times etc etc etc. I don't have any ability to coerce him not to marry her. But if he marries her, I will no longer talk to him or associate with him. It's all I can do.
My concept is what the word means. I know because I got it from the dictionary and can read English. Claiming you don't agree with it is essentially saying the concept only exists when you want it to. It's just redefining the concept in order to reach a conclusion you want.
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That's as it should be, it's ultimately everyone's choice. If they care at all about their family, they will take that into consideration.
I haven't seen any reason why it should be anyone's personal choice to mutilate themselves. You cannot generalize from one set of circumstances to another.
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They have no real "power" to exercise, so no, that's no the argument I'm making at all. Except of course, in the case of legal custodianship.
And how exactly would they get legal custodianship if the government cannot use any concept of harm other than whatever the person to be placed in custody wants it to be?
You're using a stolen concept fallacy. You recognize that sometimes people's desire can meant hey cannot make decisions for themselves and that family may need to. You also recognize that legal custodianship exists for a reason. Yet you want to disavow the concept as soon as the government gets involved which makes one wonder how legal custodianship occurs.
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It's not about keeping the government uninvolved, it's about preservation of personal liberty which results in the governmnt not being involved.
In other words, it's just keeping the government uninvolved for the sake of keeping it uninvolved, and you're just trying to obfuscate the concept of harm in order to preserve personal liberty for people demonstrating they are not fit to exercise personal liberty.