Is this the same APA who classified homosexuality as a mental illness until 1973? I'm just saying...
It's interesting because what the APA is saying is quite contradictory with what pedophiles themselves say. Of course, you probably shouldn't take that at face value, either. What I'd really like to know is what the actual behavior looks like. I don't know where you'd find statistics on this kind of thing, but if in reality most sex offenders with child victims demonstrate a preference towards one gender or the other, that would seem to dispute the APA's stance rather empirically. I don't know where you would get numbers on that.
Lex Luthor wrote:
But I bet that female CP is more prevalent than male.
This is also an interesting point, but as far as the illegal stuff goes, I'm not sure how you'd get meaningful statistics. Maybe the FBI, etc. compile statistics on these things? On the legal or quasi-legal side of things, it would probably not be too hard to look at the sales revenues of shotacon vs. lolicon in Japan, for instance. Granted, it's Japan, but still. I bet someone has even done studies into the gender of the buyers, too. I think it even tends to be further broken down into gay vs. straight, as well. But sales figures aside, just the
existence of distinct genres and even sub-genres would imply that it's little more complicated than just "I have thing for kids".
Talya wrote:
You seem to be implying that merely being attracted to the same gender makes one gay.
By that logic, merely being attracted to the opposite gender also makes you straight.
It doesn't? I mean, action as well as attraction is meaningful, but if "I'm attracted to other men" doesn't make you at least a little bit gay, then the terms are rather meaningless, aren't they?
Talya wrote:
Therefore, the vast majority of pedophiles are straight.
I wouldn't doubt it. The vast majority of people are (mostly) straight.
Talya wrote:
It's either more complex than you're willing to admit, or you're an idiot.
It's funny that you should say that, because your apparent agreement with the APA strikes me as being overly simplified, especially coming from you. I don't mean anything hostile by that -- I'm just referring to your view that there is no "Aristotelian" sexuality. That is, "gay" and "straight" are part of a continuum. Generally speaking, I think I agree with that assessment. But there doesn't really seem to be any particular justification for removing pedophilia to some kind of weird monopole separate from the rest of human sexuality other than "that's gross. Don't let it touch me."
Again, I haven't seen any statistics on the matter -- maybe pedophiles really don't exhibit gender preferences like the rest of us, but on face value, it seems odd to me that they wouldn't.